Heb_1_2

Heb. 1:1 (LIT/UBS4) The (ho) God (theos), long ago (palai), having spoken (lalēsas) many portions (polumerōs) and (kai) many ways (polutropōs) to the (tois) fathers (patrasin) in (en) the (tois) prophets (prophētais),

Heb. 1:2 over (ep’) last (eschaton) of the (tōn) days (hēmerōn) of these (toutōn) spoke (elalēsen) to us (hēmin) in (en) a son (huiō); whom (hon) [He] put in place (ethēke) [as] heir (klēronomon) of all things (pantōn), and (kai) through (di’) whom (hou) were made (epoiēsen) the (tous) ages (aiōnas);

Heb. 1:3 (LIT/UBS4) who (hos) being (ōn) a reflection off (apaugasma) of the (tēs) glory (doxēs), and (kai) a characterization (charaktēr) of the (tēs) understanding (hupostaseōs) of Him (autou), and (te) bringing (pherōn) all the things (ta panta), the (tō) work of inherent power (dunameōs) of the (tēs) word (rhēmati) of him (autou) having made (poiēsamenos) a cleansing (katharismon) of the (tōn) sins (hamartiōn), he sat down (ekathisen) in (en) right (dexia) of the (tēs) magnificence (megalōsunēs) in (en) high places (hupsēlois),

Heb. 1:4 (LIT/UBS4) he having caused himself to become (genomenos) a so much (tosoutō) stronger positioned one (kreittōn) of the (tōn) messengers (angelōn), for as much as (hosō) he has inherited (keklēronomēken) a different (diaphorōteron) name (onoma) alongside (par’) of them (autous).

There is absolutely not one word in the Greek text of Heb. 1:3 which is mysterious in its meaning. There is nothing in God’s Word which meaning remains hidden to those being diligent in their discipleship to the Word made flesh, Jesus Christ (Deut. 29:29, 30:11-14; Psa. 51:6; Prov. 25:2; Ecc. 1:13; Mat. 7:7; Luke 24:32, 45; Acts 26:18; James 1:5); because the Father opens the hearts, the "eyes", and the "ears" of those who are believing and obedient (Acts 16:14); because the time of the Ministry of Reconciliation has begun, and the Word of Reconciliation is being made known (2 Cor. 5:18-19).

In my opinion the understanding of God’s Word is based upon two obviously important points: First of all a believer must have the God’s gift of holy Spirit, God Himself, working IN him in order to be taught of the God the Father (John 6:45). Secondly, a believer must have a good storehouse of working knowledge IN their head in order for the gift of holy Spirit to be able to bring things of His Word back into the believer’s remembrance and conscious thought processes (John 14:26). If a believer has only John 3:16 in their head, then obviously that is the only knowledge of holy scripture which the holy Spirit can bring back into remembrance in the believer’s mind. Therefore a sunesis (Strong’s # 4907) cannot occur, because there is nothing in that person’s mind for the Spirit to bring/come together (Col. 1:9; 2:2-3; 2 Tim. 2:7). Therefore the manifestation of the Word of Knowledge cannot occur (1 Cor. 12:8).

Here’s how a sunesis of the God’s Word occurs in my own mind concerning these verses in Heb 1:2b, “through whom were made the ages”:

I understand the whom is God’s son, whom apostle John tells us was known as the Word in the beginning. The one performing the action of the verb were made is the God, who we know is the highest God (Luke 1:32). The preposition through (dia) shows the agency of the Word’s role in the making of the ages of the Father’s plan of redemption of mortalkind, which all was planned by the Father for His son, the Christ, and his one body to inherit (v4; Mat. 21:33-45; Acts 20:32; 26:18; Eph. 1:11-23; Col. 3:24 and elsewhere). This prepositional phrase indirectly states that the God’s son, the Word had a pre-existence with his Father, the God, back to a point at some time BEFORE the plan of the ages was made by his Father the God, through the Word. This shows the Word as the God the Father’s agent through whom He God Worked; which shows they both worked together (a symbiosis) as “one” in purpose, both working for and toward the one and the same goal, to “make the ages”. This symbiotic relationship is clearly mentioned in 2 Cor. 5:19 also, “…God was IN Christ reconciling the cosmos to Himself…”.

More evidence of the Christ’s pre-ages existence is in Col. 1:15, “…[the son] who is an icon of the God, of the unseeable [God]; [the son who is the] one first-produced (prōtotokos) of all creation;”, and verses 16-20.

But there is yet more scriptural evidence of Christ’s pre-ages existence, that the Christ was the first thing in all of creation which His Father produced (the text says produced, not born), which evidence is out of his own mouth, in John 17:5, “…And now you glorify me, Father, [with] the glory alongside yourself; of the [glory] which I was having alongside you before the cosmos was being.”; and in John 17:24, “…because you loved me before the founding/throwdown of the cosmos.”.

And in John 1:1 the apostle says that the Christ was “toward/with (pros) the God” in the beginning, as a god himself, but not the highest God, as Luke’s holy scripture further clarifies for us (Luke 1:32). But apostles Paul, John and Luke identify the Word as the son of the God.

The scriptural evidence for Christ’s pre-ages existence already seems to me to be irrefutable, if the texts are authentic and unaltered autographs of their writers. Yet even more evidence of the Christ’s pre-ages existence is stated in 1 Pet. 1:20a, “Truly he has been experientially known before, before [the] throwdown (katabolēs) of [the] cosmos;”. If the foundation/throwdown of the cosmos has not yet occurred, if all creation has not yet been formed, made and created, then who at that time could possibly have been around to experientially know the Christ, the first-produced of all creation? The only other being in existence at that time, that we can know of out of the holy scriptures, is the God the Father whom the text says produced the Word, His son, which was toward or with (pros) the God in the beginning (John 1:1). Throughout the holy scriptures these two are described in clear terms as being two separate and distinct beings; the one being, the God the Father having produced the other being, the Word, His son.

Additionally in 1 Pet. 1:20 I see an implication in the usage of the aorist, passive, participle verb phanerōthentos, from its root phaneroō, Strong’s # 5319, which case is in the genitive of source (ablative) in time, i.e., the foundation of the cosmos, in 1 Pet. 1:20b, “but he has been manifested upon [the] last of the times through you, through the believers of him into God,…”. The Word came from being an agent in co-production of the cosmos to becoming manifested in the flesh in the cosmos. A careful word study of the verb phaneroō and its adverb, adjective and noun forms reveal that something must already be in existence BEFORE it can be manifested. The manifestation of the Word, i.e., the Christ as Peter now identifies him, was from or of the source in time which was BEFORE the foundation/throwdown of the cosmos. Apostle Peter’s indirect statement or implication is that the Christ had a pre-ages existence since before the foundation of the cosmos, but that the Christ was not manifested into the five-senses realm of the creation until these last times, which happens to be the administration/age of the grace of the God through His son Jesus Christ. You look up the verse references.

In John 6:38-42, Jesus said, “I am come down (or stepped down, Gk., katabebēka) from the heaven…”. See John 8:14, 16:27-28, 17:8. From all of the passages and contexts of holy scripture I’ve seen, and shown and referenced for you here, in those immediate, local and remote contexts about the question, “through whom were made the ages”, it’s clear to me what Jesus meant when he said that he stepped down from heaven. He literally meant exactly what he said. It looks to me like the Word’s job as the God’s, his Father’s son and agent didn’t end with the creation of the cosmos, but his job and purpose to be his Father’s agent was still only beginning with the completion of the cosmos.

Scripturally, from lack of evidence, the Christ apparently did not have a body of flesh and bone prior to his miraculous birth in the flesh. This suggests that the first-produced of all of creation (Col. 1:15), the Word (John 1:1), which was toward/with (pros) the God, may have been a spirit-based being as well as was his producer his Father the God (John 3:6, 4:24; 1 Cor. 15:40). However I have not found this explicitly stated anywhere in the text. But if true, that would make the Word “cosubstantial”, but absolutely not “coequal” as the Trinitarians assert, since the Word was produced, being the first-produced thing of all produced things in the creation of the God. In fact, I can’t find evidence that the Word, the Christ, God’s son ever was or ever shall be “coequal” with his Father the God, not in his pre-ages existence, not in his existence in the flesh in his earthly ministry, and not in his present existence and heavenly ministry, and not in his future existence and ministry.

While in this contextual neighborhood here in John 6, apostle John records in verse 46 that Jesus Christ says, “Because absolutely not (ouch) has anyone gazed at (heōraken) the Father, if not the one being alongside of the God! This one has gazed at (heōraken) the Father.” Notice Jesus’ use of the emphatic particle of negation ouch in the text. The common particle of negation is mē, which simply means “no” or “not”. But the emphatic particle ouch means, “absolutely no”, or absolutely not, no way, no how”. Jesus says “absolutely not, no way, no how has anyone ever seen the Father except me.”

To me, Jesus statement here, along with other holy scripture references about Jesus Christ being a “reflection of/off” of the glory of the God (Heb. 1:3), and Jesus Christ being only and “icon” of his Father (Col. 1:15; 2 Cor. 4:4), along with these other holy scripture references which further help a sunesis come together in my mind, the records where Jesus says he had no power to do anything of himself but that it was his Father IN him doing the works, the signs, miracles and wonders, who was clearly working IN Jesus symbiotically as His son being His agent (John 5:19, 10:38, 14:10, 14:28; 2 Cor. 5:18-19), so that when Jesus said to Philip, “I am with you so much time and you have absolutely not experientially known me , Philip?”, and what Jesus said in John 8:19, 14:7 as well, he must have spoke only figuratively to them, being only his Father’s reflection and only and iconof his Father which absolutely no one has ever seen, except him.

All of this evidence in the holy scriptures says to me that Jesus’ manifestation in the cosmos, in flesh, at the time of his earthy ministry, was absolutely not a manifestation of the God his Father in flesh, but the Word made flesh was a manifestation of himself, a manifestation of the God’s son in the flesh!!! And that because Christ is the God’s son, is the reason why Jesus Christ was only a reflection, only an icon of His heavenly Father, the God, the most high one. And that Jesus Christ’s Father, an invisible holy Spirit was IN His son’s manifestation, working through (dia) Jesus Christ symbiotically, God’s son, the Word made flesh being His agent. And they two, two separate and distinct beings worked together as one in purpose, to carryout the Father’s plan of the ages, the Ministry of Reconciliation through making known the Word of Reconciliation (2 Cor. 5:18-19), Jesus Christ himself being that Word, as John says in John 1:1. This is why the Word made flesh, a reflection, an icon, absolutely can not be “God the son”. In my opinion, that clause is the product of a mind ignorant of ALL of these things in God’s Word, or disbelief of any of them; such a shallow presumption can only be left by default in the ignorant imagination of anyone in lieu of a good working knowledge of God’s Word, AND the gift of holy Spirit working in a believe to put that knowledge of His Word together (sunesis) for them in one’s own mind.

This is what I see, understand and believe out of God’s Word, which explains to me HOW the God the Father made the ages through His son, His agent the Christ; and then continued working through His Word, His son, His icon, His reflection, the manifestation of His son, the Word in the flesh, Jesus Christ. The Word made flesh was absolutely not a manifestation of God in the flesh, BUT (alla), the manifestation of His son, son, son in the flesh!

Further more, I believe God the Father together with His first-produced of all creation, His Word, the Christ, is what at least constitutes Elohiym (plural). I believe the meaning of the word Elohiym may reference subsequently produced spirit-based beings also in addition to the Father and His son, since we can easily see in the texts that there are in existence several kinds of spirit-based beings which the God and/or His son have assigned positions and roles.

Gen. 1:1 (LIT/UBS4) Elohiym (Myhla) created (arb) in the beginning (tyvar); and (ta) the heavens (Mymv) and (ta) the earth (Ura) [were created].

In Gen. 1:3 and going forward whenever the God the Father said, “Let there become (hyh)…”, that the Word which was toward/with (Gk., pros) the God (John 1:1) performed the doing of his father’s command, and maybe along with others of the subsequently produced heavenly host, with the authority and power delegated to him from his Father the God, the most high one, and subsequently delegated to them to some degree.